CHS Previous Year Question Paper 2025 for Class 9 has been given in this article. You can view and download the pdf of CHS Previous Year Question Paper 2025 Class 9. Previous Year Question paper is most important for students who are preparing for that examination. CHS BHU Entrance exam for class 9 is conducted every year for admission in Central Hindu Boys School and Central Hindu Girls School – Banaras Hindu University. In this article you will get CHS BHU Previous Year Question Paper for class 9 and you can also download CHS BHU PYQ 2025 class 9.
CHS Entrance Exam class 9
CHS BHU SET Exam also known as CHS Entrance exam is a school entrance exam for admission in class 9 in Central Hindu Schools ( Boys & Girls ) run by Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi. Students have to fill online application form to get appear in the CHS BHU Entrance Examination after that they to qualify offline OMR based examination to get admission.
Key Highlights :
- Exam Name : CHS SET Exam
- Conducting Body : Banaras Hindu University
- Class : 9th
- Mode of examination : Offline ( OMR based )
- Question Type : Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
- Subjects Covered : Hindi , English , Science , Social Science , Mathematics and General Knowledge
- English
In Q. No. 1 to 3, eac question has a sentence with three highlighted parts labbeled (1), (2), and (3). Read each sentences to find out whether there is any error in any highlighted part and indicate your response. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4) :
- (1)He said to him, (2)Athletics are (3)my favourite sport, (4) No error
2. (1)My boss (2)prefers tea (3)than coffee. (4) No error
3. (1)He does not (2) have any idea (3)about the meeting. (4) No error
Direction ( Q. No. 4 to 6) : Select the word which is nearest in the meaning to the highlighted word :
4. His ardent support for the cause made him a well-known figure in the community.
(1) Mild
(2) Passionate
(3) Indifferent
(4) Weak
5. The serene lake was the perfect spot for spending a peaceful afternoon.
(1) Noisy
(2) Chaotic
(3) Calm
(4) Polluted
6. She had an incessant need to check her phone, even during meetings.
(1) Rare
(2) Constant
(3) Temporary
(4) Unimportant
Direction : ( Q. No. 7 & 8) – Select the word which is opposite in meaning to the highlighted word :
7. His attitude was arrogant, which made it diffult to work with him.
(1) Humble
(2) Proud
(3) Confident
(4) Rude
8. The professor’s explanation was obscure and left the students confused.
(1) clear
(2) Confusing
(3) complicated
(4) Vague
Direction ( Q. No. 9 to 11 ) : Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles (a, an & the ):
9. I have ……. cat and ……. dog.
(1) a, the
(2) an, a
(3) the, a
(4) a, a
10. …….. Earth revolves around ……. Sun.
(1) An, the
(2) The, the
(3) The, the
(4) A, the
11. She has …… unique way of solving problems that makes her stand out.
(1) a
(2) an
(3) the
(4) no article
Direction (Q. No. 12 to 14 ) : Fill in the blanks with appropriate form of the words given in brackets :
12. The team performed ………………. (exception) in the finals, winning the championship.
(1) exception
(2) exceptionally
(3) exceptional
(4) except
13. The professor ……….. (impress) the students with the detailed and engaging lecture that he delivered.
(1) impresses
(2) impressing
(3) impressed
(4) impressively
14. Her argument was so …… (convince) that even her opponents agreed with her point of view.
(1) convincing
(2) convinced
(3) convincingly
(4) convince
Direction ( Q. No. 15 & 16 ) : In these questions, a particular relationship is given. A similar relationship has to be identified from among the given alternatives :
15. Miser : Wealth :: Glutton : ?
(1) Food
(2) Pleasure
(3) Energy
(4) Greed
16. Benevolent : Kind :: Malevolent :
(1) Angry
(2) Good
(3) Evil
(4) Generous
Direction (Q. No. 17 to 20): Choose the appropriate option after reading the following conversation:
Conversation:
Teacher: Good morning, Sarah. Did you complete your homework?
Student: Yes, I did, Ma’am. Here it is.
Teacher: Great! Let me check it. What part did you find difficult?
Student: I struggled with the last question about fractions.
Teacher: No worries, we’ll go over that in class.
17. The teacher greeted Sarah and asked her if she …….. her homework.
(1) had completed
(2) complete
(3) is completing
(4) completes
18. Sarah replied that she …….. it and handed it over.
(1) did
(2) had done
(3) has done
(4) does
19. The teacher asked Sarah which part she ……… difficult.
(1) had found
(2) finds
(3) find
(4) finding
20. Sarah explained that she ……… with the last question about fractions.
(1) struggle
(2) had struggled
(3) is struggling
(4) struggles
Hindi
21. शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है :
(1) उज्ज्वल
2) उज्जवल
(3) ऊजज्वल
(4) उज्वल
22. ‘सूरसागर’ के रचनाकार हैं :
(1) तुलसीदास
(2) सूरदास
(3) कबीर
(4) जायसी
23. ‘गंगाजल’ में समास है :
(1) कर्म तत्पुरुष
(2) करण तत्पुरुष
(3) संबंध तत्पुरुष
(4) अधिकरण तत्पुरुष
24. ‘पानी की कहानी’ के लेखक हैं :
(1) रामचन्द्र शुक्ल
(2) निर्मल वर्मा
(3) अज्ञेय
(4) रामचन्द्र तिवारी
25. ‘अवधी’ किस क्षेत्र के आस-पास बोली जाती है?
(1) प्रयागराज
(2) मेरठ
(3) दिल्ली
(4) मथुरा
26. ‘बैठक’ में प्रत्यय है :
(1) ई
(2) क
(3) क्
(4) अक्
27. ‘अकुल रह’ का स्थायी भाव है :
(1) शोक
(2) उत्साह
(3) भय
(4) निर्वेद
28. यह लड़का हमारे विद्यालय का है — वाक्य में ‘यह’ क्या है?
(1) संकेतवाचक सर्वनाम
(2) निजवाचक सर्वनाम
(3) परिमाणवाचक विशेषण
(4) सार्वनामिक विशेषण
29. शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है :
(1) सन्यासी
(2) संन्यासी
(3) सन्यासी
(4) सन्यासि
30. ‘विनय पत्रिका’ के रचनाकार हैं :
(1) तुलसीदास
(2) सूरदास
(3) कबीर
(4) जायसी
31. ‘वनवास’ में समास है :
(1) कर्म तत्पुरुष
(2) करण तत्पुरुष
(3) संबंध तत्पुरुष
(4) अधिकरण तत्पुरुष
32. ‘टेढ़ी उंगली’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है :
(1) बेईमानी करना
(2) सत्ता पलटना
(3) सम्मान करना
(4) युक्तिबल मोल लेना
33. ‘पुनर्गुण’ में उपसर्ग है :
(1) पुन
(2) पुरुन
(3) पुनः
(4) गुण
34. ‘ब्रज’ किस क्षेत्र के आस-पास बोली जाती है?
(1) प्रयागराज
(2) मेरठ
(3) गाज़ीपुर
(4) मथुरा
35. बादल का पर्यायवाची नहीं है :
(1) मेघ
(2) जलधर
(3) नीरद
(4) जलधि
36. ‘बाल रस’ का स्थायी भाव है :
(1) शोक
(2) उत्साह
(3) भय
(4) निर्वेद
37. ‘करण कारक’ का उदाहरण है :
(1) मोहन कलम से लिखता है
(2) रेलगाड़ी प्लेटफार्म से जा चुकी है
(3) कुम्हार घोड़े से गिरा
(4) वृक्ष से पत्ता गिरा
38. ‘मनोहर’ का सही संधि-विच्छेद है :
(1) मानो + हर
(2) मन + हर
(3) मनः + हर
(4) म + नोहर
39. ‘अदृश्य’ का विलोम शब्द है :
(1) सूक्ष्म
(2) कालातीत
(3) दृश्य
(4) अंध
40. स्वर के भेद होते हैं :
(1) तीन
(2) आठ
(3) पाँच
(4) दो
Mathematics
41. The value of

(1) 5⁻³
(2) 5³
(3) 3⁻⁵
(4) 5⁵
42. For the given equation : The value of ‘x’ is :

(1) x = 2
(2) x = −2
(3) x = 3
(4) x = 4
43. The measures of two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are in the ratio 3 : 2. The largest angle is :
(1) 75°
(2) 120°
(3) 108°
(4) 60°
44. After 20% discount Arun bought a shirt in Rs. 1600. What is its marked price?
(1) Rs. 2000
(2) Rs. 1800
(3) Rs. 2200
(4) Rs. 2400
45. The sum of first 21 odd numbers is :
(1) 440
(2) 441
(3) 430
(4) 442
46. If the surface area of a cube is 600 cm², then the length of its one side is :
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 100 cm
(4) 10√6 cm
47. If

then the value of ‘x’ is :
(10 x = 3
(2) x = 2
(3) x = −3
(4) x = −1
48. If 3/5 of a number exceeds its 2/7 by 44, then the number is :
(1) 70
(2) 280
(3) 140
(4) 160
49. What least number must be added to 15370 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 9
50. The ages of A and B are in ratio 5 : 7. Four years from now the ratio of their ages will be 3 : 4. The present age of B is:
(1) 28 Yrs
(2) 30 Yrs
(3) 40 Yrs
(4) 32 Yrs
51. Number of boys and girls in a class are in ratio 7 : 5. The number of boys is 8 more than the number of girls. The total class strength is:
(1) 50
(2) 38
(3) 52
(4) 48
52. By selling a radio for Rs. 950, a man loses 5%. What percent shall he gain by selling it for Rs. 1040?
(1) 5%
(2) 4%
(3) 6%
(4) 8%
53. A works twice as fast as B. If both of them can together finish a piece of work in 12 days, then B alone can do it in:
(1) 36 days
(2) 24 days
(3) 18 days
(4) 20 days
54. The ratio between the radius of the base and the height of a cylinder is 2 : 3. Find the total surface area of the cylinder, if its volume is 1617 cm³:
(1) 770 cm²
(2) 780 cm²
(3) 800 cm²
(4) 880 cm²
55. If the area of an equilateral triangle is 4√3 cm², then each side of the equilateral triangle is:
(1) 4/√3cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 2/√3 cm
(4) 2 cm
56. If the algebraic expression 7√3x2 – 10x -4√2 has two factors, then the factors are:
(1) (4 – 7√2x)2
(2) (7√2 – √3) (x – √2)
(3) (x + √2) (7√2x – 4)
(4) (x – √2) (7√2x + 4)
57. If x + 1 / x = 4, then the value of x4 + 1 / x4 is:
(1) 196
(2) 194
(3) 198
(4) 192
58. The simplified value of ( 1/27)2/3 is:
(1) 1/9
(2) – 1/9
(3) 9
(4) 27
59. The compound interest on Rs. 4000 at 10% per annum for 2 years is:
(1) Rs. 480
(2) Rs. 800
(3) Rs. 900
(4) Rs. 840
60. How many diagonals are there in a polygon having 12 sides?
(1) 60
(2) 54
(3) 30
(4) 27
Science
61. Which of the following is not a constituent of petroleum?
(1) Paraffin wax
(2) Petrol
(3) Lubricating oil
(4) Coke
62. Exhaustible natural resources are:
(1) Unlimited in quantity
(2) Not dependent on nature
(3) Limited in quantity
(4) Not exhausted by humans
63. Which of the following statements is not true for organic manure?
(1) It enhances water holding capacity of soil.
(2) It has a balance of all plant nutrients.
(3) It provides humus to soil.
(4) It improves texture of soil.
64. The disease caused by a protozoan and spread by an insect is:
(1) Dengue
(2) Malaria
(3) Polio
(4) Measles
65. The two micro-organisms which live in symbiotic association in lichens are:
(1) Fungus and protozoa
(2) Bacteria and protozoa
(3) Alga and bacteria
(4) Alga and fungus
66. Choose the correct statement about the inflammable substances:
(1) Low ignition temperature and cannot catch fire easily.
(2) High ignition temperature and can catch fire easily.
(3) Low ignition temperature and can catch fire easily.
(4) High ignition temperature and cannot catch fire easily.
67. Which among the following is considered as the cleanest fuel?
(1) Wood
(2) Petrol
(3) Kerosene
(4) Hydrogen gas
68. Magnesium ribbon on burning in air produces:
(1) Magnesium oxide, water and light
(2) Magnesium oxide and heat
(3) Magnesium oxide, heat and light
(4) Magnesium oxide, water and heat
69. The place meant for conservation of biodiversity in their natural habitat is:
(i) Zoological garden
(ii) Botanical garden
(iii) Wildlife sanctuary
(iv) National park
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)
70. Reproduction by budding takes place in:
(1) Hydra
(2) Amoeba
(3) Paramecium
(4) Snakes
71. In the list of animals given below, hen is the odd one out. Select the reason for this:
Human being, cow, dog, hen
(1) It undergoes internal fertilization.
(2) It is oviparous.
(3) It is viviparous.
(4) It undergoes external fertilization.
72. AIDS can spread from an infected person to another person through:
(1) Sharing food
(2) Blood transfusion
(3) Sharing comb
(4) Mosquito bite
73. The belief that the mother is completely responsible for the sex of the child is wrong, because the child:
(1) Gets sex chromosome only from the mother.
(2) Develops in the body of the mother.
(3) Gets one sex chromosome from the mother and the other from the father.
(4) Gets sex chromosome only from the father.
74. Growing different crops alternately on the same land is technically called:
(1) Crop alternation
(2) Crop rotation
(3) Crop revolution
(4) Crop change
75. Two objects repel each other. This repulsion could be due to:
(1) Frictional force only
(2) Electrostatic force only
(3) Magnetic force only
(4) Either a magnetic or an electrostatic force
76. Figure shows a container filled with water. Which of the following statements is correct about pressure of water?
(1) Pressure at A > Pressure at B > Pressure at C
(2) Pressure at A = Pressure at B = Pressure at C
(3) Pressure at A < Pressure at B > Pressure at C
(4) Pressure at A < Pressure at B < Pressure at C
77. A toy car released with the same initial speed will travel farthest on:
(1) Muddy surface
(2) Polished marble surface
(3) Cemented surface
(4) Bricks surface
78. The loudness of sound depends on:
(1) Its amplitude
(2) Its frequency
(3) Its time period
(4) Its speed
79. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Sound is produced by vibrations
(2) Sound requires a medium for propagation
(3) Light and sound both require a medium for propagation
(4) The speed of sound is lesser than the speed of light
80. Boojho’s uncle has set up an electroplating factory near his village. He should dispose off the waste of the factory:
(1) In the nearby river
(2) In the nearby pond
(3) In the nearby corn field
(4) According to the disposal guidelines of the local authority
Social Science
81. Who was James Mill?
(1) A Scottish economist and political philosopher
(2) A linguist appointed as junior judge at the Supreme Court
(3) President of the Board of Control of the Company
(4) Scottish Missionary
82. What was the system under which peasants were forced to grow indigo on their land?
(1) Permanent settlement
(2) Mahalwari settlement
(3) Ryotwari settlement
(4) Nij and Ryoti system
83. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) 1855 – Santhal Rebel
(2) 1940 – Bastar Rebel
(3) 1920 – Kols Rebel
(4) 1948 – Warli Rebel
84. Who decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would be the last Mughal King?
(1) Lord Dalhousie
(2) Thomas Munro
(3) Lord Ripon
(4) Lord Canning
85. The English Education Act was introduced in which year?
(1) 1835
(2) 1854
(3) 1864
(4) 1913
86. “Oru jati, oru matam, Oru daivam manushyanu” famous statement was given by:
(1) Shri Narayan Guru
(2) Ghasidas
(3) Haridas Thakur
(4) Jyotirao Phule
87. What was the main feature of ‘Government of India Act 1935’?
(1) Complete Independence
(2) Abolition of British Rule
(3) Establishment of Indian Republic
(4) Provincial Autonomy
88. Who was founder of ‘Khudai Khidmatgar’?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(3) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(4) Syed Ahmad Khan
89. Which of these is a non-renewable resource?
(1) Natural Gas
(2) Solar Energy
(3) Wind Energy
(4) Tidal Energy
90. What is Sustainable development?
(1) Overuse of resources
(2) Development without conservation
(3) Meeting present needs without harming future generations
(4) Ignoring environmental concerns
91. Which soil is best suited for growing cotton?
(1) Desert Soil
(2) Red Soil
(3) Sandy Soil
(4) Black Soil
92. Viticulture is related with cultivation of __________.
(1) Silkworms
(2) Vegetable, flowers
(3) Grapes
(4) Breeding of fish
93. Which of the following is a small-scale industry?
(1) Cement Industry
(2) Handicraft Industry
(3) Petroleum refinery
(4) Automobile industry
94. Which industry is called the “Sunrise Industry”?
(1) Information Technology
(2) Textile Industry
(3) Coal Industry
(4) Cement Industry
95. Which of the following is an example of country that has experienced a loss of population number due to emigration?
(1) United States of America
(2) Australia
(3) India
(4) Sudan
96. Which Fundamental Right was removed by 44th Amendment?
(1) Right to Property
(2) Right to Education
(3) Right to Equality
(4) Right to Freedom
97. Which part of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
(1) Part I
(2) Part II
(3) Part III
(4) Part IV
98. Which European country banned students from wearing religious symbols in public schools?
(1) Germany
(2) France
(3) U.K.
(4) Spain
99. Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
(1) President
(2) Prime Minister
(3) Vice-President
(4) Chief Minister
100. The ‘Right to Education Act’ provides free education for children of which of the following age group?
(1) 0–6 years
(2) 6–14 years
(3) 14–18 years
(4) 18–25 years
Also Read : CHS Previous year Question paper 2024 class 9
CHS Previous Question Paper 2025 Class 9 PDF Download
You can download the CHS Previous Year QUestion Paper 2025 for class 9 for free and enhance your preparation for CHS entrance exam class 9.
Books for CHS Class 9 Preparation
Here is the list of books, students should follow to prepare for CHS Exam class 9 :
- NCERT Mathematics ( Class 8 level concepts )
- NCERT Science
- General Knowledge Guides
- English Grammar practice books
Solving CHS Previous Year Paper for class 9 is one of the most important strategies to crack CHS Entrance Exam. Every students should practice to solve the previous year question papers, so that they can understand the level of questions and type of questions asked in the examination. Solving previous year papers will boost their preparation.
To get more information about CHS BHU Admission, you can visit the official website that is bhuonline.in
Is solving previous year papers enough for CHS Class 9 examination ?
Previous year papers help a lot, but students should also study NCERT books and practice model papers for their preparation of CHS Entrance Examination.
Is there negative marking in CHS exam ?
No, there is no negative marking in CHS Entrance Exam.
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