CHS Previous Year Question Paper Class 11 Mathematics 2019 : CHS Previous Year Question Paper PDF Download full details

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CHS Previous Year Question Paper Class 11 Mathematics is given in this article. you can read all the questions and solve these previous year questions of CHS BHU SET Examination of 2019. By solving the previous year papers, you will know to know about the types of questions asked in the examination and also you can examine your preparations. Questions in the CHS SET examination were based on the previous year questions and patterns.

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1 CHS Entrance Exam Class 11 Mathematics Question Pattern
2 CHS Previous Year Question Paper Class 11 Mathematics

CHS Entrance Exam Class 11 Mathematics Question Pattern

There are total 100 questions are asked in the CHS BHU SET Examination in the form of Multiple Choice Questions from Six subjetcs( Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry,General Knowledge, Hindi and English) and every questions contain 3 marks that means total 300 marks. There are no any negative marking in the examination, if you have given a correct answer then you will get 3 marks or if you have given any wrong answers then you will get 0 marks.

CHS Class 11 Mathematics Question Pattern

Subjects Number of Questions
1. Hindi 10
2. English 10
3. General Knowledge 05
4. Chemistry 25
5. Physics 25
6. Mathematics 25
CHS Class 11 Mathematics Question Pattern

CHS Previous Year Question Paper Class 11 Mathematics

This is the CHS Previous Year Question Paper Class 11 Mathematics which was asked in the CHS BHU SET Examination in the year 2019 for those students who are willing to take admission in Central Hindu Schools in class 11th in Mathematics stream.

Mathematics Group

  1. ‘पनहीं’ शब्द का तत्सम रूप है :

(1) ताम्बूल

(2) पर्ण

(3) उपानह

(4) पर्णहि

  1. ‘तुम्हें राम के आने तक प्रतीक्षा करनी होगी।’ इस वाक्य में ‘तक कौ-सा निपात है ?

(1) स्वीकार्य

(2) बलार्थक

(3) निषेधात्मक

(4) अवधारणा बोधक

  1. मतैक्य में सन्धि है :

(1) दीर्घ

(2) वृद्धि

(3) यण्

(4) गुण

  1. शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है :

(1) सुसुप्ति

(2) सुसप्ति

(3) सुषप्ति

(4) सुषुप्ति

  1. निम्न में से कौन रीतिकालीन कवि नहीं हैं?

(1) धनानंद

(2) देव

(3) मतिराम

(4) रसखान

  1. ‘कवितावली’ रचना की भाषा है:

(1) अवधी

(2) ब्रज

(3) मैथिली

(4) संस्कृत

  1. उच्चारण शब्द में उपसर्ग है:

(1) उ

(2) उच्

(3) उत्

(4) उच्च

  1. मरणासन्न में समास है :

(1) तत्पुरुष समास

(2) अव्ययीभाव समास

(3) कर्मधारय समास

(4) द्वन्द्व समास

  1. ‘धीरे-धीरे चलो’ । वाक्य में रेखांकित पद है :

(1) जातिवाचक संज्ञा

(2) भाववाचक संज्ञा

(3) अनिश्चियवाचक क्रिया विशेषण

(4) रीतिवाचक क्रिया विशेषण

  1. ‘आएँगे अच्छे दिन भी’ के रचनाकार हैं :

(1) स्वयं प्रकाश

(2) रामवृक्ष बेनीपुरी

(3) यशपाल

(4) मन्नू भंडारी

Fill in the blank with appropriate following words:

11. Wait here until I …….., you.

(1) will call

(2) call

(3) am calling

(4) am going to call

  1. Who ………. was coming to see me this morning?

(1) You said

(2) did you say that

(3) You did say

(4) did you say

  1. They tried to leave the country……….their own lives:

(1) afraid of

(2) afraid for

(3) afraid for

(4) afraid

  1. Change the sentence into passive voice: “Someone has spread this rumour.

(1) This rumour has spread.

(2) This rumour has been spreading.

(3) This rumour has been spread.

(4) This rumour was spread.

  1. Change the following sentence in to active voice – “Every doctor is cheated by him.”

(1) He cheated every doctor

(2) He has cheated every doctor

(3) He cheats every doctor

(4) He is cheating every doctor

  1. Identify the correctly spelt word:

(1) Acquaintence

(2) Acquantance

(3) Acquaintance

(4) Acquentence

  1. The correct meaning of the Idiom ‘A Black sheep’ is:

(1) Black man

(2) Unlucky sheep

(3) Unlucky person

(4) Lucky person

  1. What is the study and science of time measurement called?

(1) Horology

(2) Morphology

(3) Calligraphy

(4) Ornithology

  1. Who is the author of the book ‘Becoming’?

(1) Barack Obama

(2) Michelle Obama

(3) Chetan Bhagat

(4) Vikrant Khanna

20. ‘ Fear of Ants’ is called:

(1 ) Cynophobia

(2) Ophidiophobia

(3) Hydrophobia

(4) Myrmecophobia

  1. ‘Clean Indian Mission’ was officially launched on:

(1) 2nd October, 2014

(2) 15th August, 2014

(3) 25th December, 2014

(4) 5th June, 2014

  1. The First person in India who was awarded, Nobel Prize was?

(1) C.V. Raman

(2) Amartya Sen

(3) Ravindra Nath Tagore

(4) Har Govind Khurana

  1. Among the following who was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year 2019?

(1) Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya

(2) Pranab Mukherjee

(3) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

(4) C.N.R. Rao

  1. The world’s largest solar park which was inaugurated in ‘Pavagada’ in the year 2018 in India is located in the state of:

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) Kerala

(3) Maharashtra

(4) Karnataka

  1. Statue of Unity is built on the river:

(1) Mahanadi

(2) Narmada

(3) Sabarmati

(4) Tapti

  1. 3.42 g of sucrose is dissolved in 18 g of water in a beaker. The number of oxygen atoms in the solution is:

(1) 6.68 x 1023

(2) 6.09 x 1022

(3) 6.022 x 1023

(4) 6.6 x 1022

  1. When a student adds red litmus to an aqueous solution, the red litmus turned blue. Which one of the following should be added in excess so that the change in colour is reversed?

(1) Backing soda Solution

(2) Lime water

(3) Ammonia Solution

(4) Vinegar Solution

  1. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state?

(1) NH3

(2) N2H4

(3) NH2OH

(4) N3H

  1. Which among the following metals is employed to provide cathodic protection to iron?

(1) Nickel

(2) Tin

(3) Zinc

(4) Lead

  1. Which among the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?

(1) H2O2

(2) HCN

(3) Cellulose

(4) Concentrated acetic acid

  1. Brass is an alloy of:

(1) Zn and Sn

(2) Cu and Al

(3) Zn and Cu

(4) Sn and Pb

  1. Bauxit is the most important ore of:

(1) Al

(2) Cu

(3) Fe

(4) Pb

  1. The metal that does not displace hydrogen from dilute acid is:

(1) Fe

(2) Cu

(3) Na

(4) Zn

  1. Ethanol on Oxidation gives:

(1) Ethane

(2) Ethene

(3) Formaldehyde

(4) Ethanoic acid

  1. Which among the following phenolic compounds is most acidic in nature?

(1) p-aminophenol

(2) phenol

(3) m-nitrophenol

(4) p-nitrophenol

  1. The burning of magnesium in air is a :

(1) Combination reaction

(2) Decomposition reaction

(3) Displacement reaction

(4) Neutratization reaction

  1. In the reaction Cu2+ + Fe → Cu + Fe2+ the substance that is oxidised is:

(1) Cu²+

(2) Fe

(3) Fe2+

(4) None of above

  1. Which of the following is a polar molecule?

(1) BF3

(2) SF4

(3) SiF4

(4) XeF4

  1. Bleaching powder is represented by the for- mula:

(1) CaO.CaCl2

(2) CaCl2

(3) CaCl2.CaCO3

(4) Ca(OCl)Cl

  1. When ethanol reacts with sodium metal, the gas evolved is:

(1) CO

(2) H2

(3) O2

(4) CO

  1. German Silver is an alloy of:

(1) Cu, Sn, Zn

(2) Cu, Sn. Ni

(3) Cu, Ni, Zn

(4) Cu,Zi,Au

  1. The molecular formula of potash alum is:

(1) K2.Al2(SO4)3.12H2O

(2) K2(SO4).Al2(SO4)3.12H2O

(3) Al2(SO4)3.K2(SO4).20H2O

(4) K2(SO4).Al2(SO4)3.24H2O

43. Which of the following contains highest number of molecules?

(1) 44 g of CO2

(2) 36 g of H2O

(3) 48 g of O2

(4) 32 g of SO4

  1. Correct order of atomic radii is:

(1) B<Al<Ga<ln

(2) B<Ga<Al<ln

(3) Al<Ga<B<ln

(4) Ga<B<Al<ln

  1. Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards eletrophilic nitrations is:

(1) Toluene

(2) Benzene

(3) Benzoic acid

(4) Nitrobenzene

  1. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 ml of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetra aquachromium (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be:

(1) 0.001

(2) 0.002

(3) 0.003

(4) 0.01

  1. A complex compound in which the oxidation number of a metal is zero is;

(1) K4[Fe(CN)6]

(2) K3[Fe(CN)6]

(3) [Ni(CO4)]

(4) [Pl(NH3)4]Cl2

  1. The common name of Sulphuric acid is:

(1) Oil of Vitriol

(2) Blue Vitriod

(3) Muriatic acid

(4) Green Vitriol

  1. Which element in the following reaction gets oxidized?

H2SO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 +H₂↑

(1) Hydrogen

(2) Sulfur

(3) Oxygen

(4) Zine

  1. The bond dissociation energy of lhydrogen bonds in water molucule is:

( 1) 10.5 kJ/mol

(2) 20.5 kJ/mol

(3) 23.3 kJ/mol

(4) 230.3 kl/mol

  1. Which phenomenon is responsible for the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?

(1) Scattering of light

(2) Dispersion of light

(3) Total internal reflection of light

(4) Diffraction of light

  1. At what temperature are Fahrenheit and Kelvin equal?

(1) 374.59

(2) 474.25

(3) 674.59

(4) 574.59

  1. A wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts and then connected in parallel. Then the equivalent resistance is:

(1) R/5

(2) R/25

(3) 5R

(4) 25R

  1. The force of gravitation between two bodies of mass 1 kg each kept at a distance of 1 meter in vacuum is:

(1) 6.67 N

(2) 6.67 X 10-7N

(3) 6.67 X 10-9N

(4) 6.67 X 10-11N

  1. 1 K Whr is equal to:

(1) 3.6 Mega Joules

(2) 0.36 Mega Joules

(3) 36 Mega Joules

(4) 96 Mega Joules

  1. Nature of image formed on retina of human eye is:

(1) Virtual and erect

(2) Real and inverted

(3) Real and erect

(4) Virtual and inverted

57. Megnetic field inside a long solenoid is:

(1) Uniform and strong

(2) Non-uniform only

(3) Non-uniform and weak

(4) None of these

  1. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a momentum of 10 kg m/s. A force of 0.2 N acts on it in the direction of motion of body for 10 sec. The increase in kinetic energy is :

(1) 1000 Joule

(2) 995.4 Joule

(3) 4.4 Joule

(4) 2 Joule

  1. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time, after which it deaccelerates at a constant rate ẞ and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the maximum velocity acquired by the car will be:

(1) (α2 + ẞ 2) / αẞ x t

(2) (α2 – ẞ 2 / αẞ ) x t

(3) (α+ ẞ / αẞ ) x t

(4) (αẞ / α + ẞ) x t

  1. The law applicable for determining the appar ent change in frequency when a source and an observer are in motion is:

(1) Newton’s law

(2) Galileo’s law

(3) Huygen’s law

(4) Doppler’s law

  1. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into 2 pieces of 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of 18 kg mass is 6 m/sec. The kinetic energy of the other mass will be:

(1) 324 J

(2) 256J

(3) 524 J

(4) 486J

  1. The magnetic field at a distance, ofr from a long wire carrying current I is 0.4 tesia. The magnetic field at a distance 2r from the wire is:

(1) 1.6 tesla

(2) 0.8 tesla

(3) 0.1 tesla

(4) 0.2 tesla

  1. A bob of a second pendulum is replaced by another bob of double mass. The new time period will be:

(1) 1 sec

(2) 2 sec

(3) 3 sec

(4) None of these

  1. A Jet engine works on the principle of:

(1) Conservation of linear momentum

(2) Conservation of kinetic energy

(3) Conservation of angular moinentum

(4) Conservation of inertia

  1. An electric heater draws a current of 10A from a 220V supply. What will be the cost of using the heater for 5 hours everyday for 30 days if the cost of 1 unit (1 kwh) is ₹5.20 ?

(1) ₹1716

(2) ₹157.20

(3) ₹111.44

(4) 1842

  1. When two resistances of 3 ohms and 6 ohms 74 are connected in parallel, then the equivalent resistance is:

(1) 9 ohms

(2) 1/2 ohms

(3) 2 ohms

(4) 1/4 ohms

  1. A 6 ohm resistance wire is doubled up by folding. The new resistance of the wire is:

(1) 0.67W

(2) 1.5W

(3) 3.0W

(4) 4.5W

68. An electric iron draws a current of 3.4 A from the 220 V supply line. The current that electric iron draws when connected to 110 V supply line is:

(1) 64.7 A

(2) 17 A

(3) 1.7 A

(4) 0.17 A

  1. An electric bulb draws a current of 0.25 A for 20 minutes. The amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit is:

(1) 120 coulombs

(2) 48 coulombs

(3) 300 coulombs

(4) 500 coulombs

  1. Work done in moving a charge of 2 coulombs from a point at 118 volts to a point at 128 volts is:

(1) 10 Joules

(2) 20 Joules

(3) 5 Joules

(4) 15 Joules

  1. The coloured light which has the least speed in glass prism is:

(1) Green

(2) Red

(3) Yellow

(4) Violet

  1. If an object of 7 cm height is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. The height of the image is:

(1) 2 cm

(2) 24 cm

(3) 14 cm

(4) 30 cm

  1. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?

(1) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm.

(2) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm.

(3) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.

(4) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.

74. . A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60°. If the reflected and refracted rays are perpenclicular to each other, the index of refraction of glass is:

(1) 1/2

(2) 3/2

(3) √3/2

(4) √3

  1. The persistence of vision of normal human eye is:

(1) 1/10 S

(2) 1/16 S

(3) 1/20 S

(4) 16 S

  1. The mean of n observations is x̄ If the first item is increased by 1, second by 2, third by 3 and so on upon n, then the new mean is:

(1) x̄+(2n+1)

(2) x̄ + (n+1) / 2

(3) x̄ + (n + 1)

(4) x̄ – (n+1) / 2

  1. For a frequency distribution, mean, median and mode are connected by the relation:

(1) Mode = 3 Mean – 2 Median

(2) Mode = 2 Median – 3 Mean

(3) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean

(4) Mode = 3 Median + 2 Mean

  1. Mean of first n odd natural numbers is:

(1) n/2

(2) n2

(3) (n+1)/2

(4) n

  1. The value of cos1° cos2°cos3°….. cos180° is:

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) -1

(4) None of these

  1. A jar contains 54 marbles each of which is blue, green or white. The probability of selecting a blue marble at random from the jar is and the probability of selecting a green marble is 1/3 and the probability of selecting a green marblr at random is 4/9. Number of which marbles in the jar is :

(1) 12

(2) 18

(3) 24

(4) 9

  1. If the radii of the circular ends of a conical bucket which is 45 cm high, are 28 cm and 7 cm, the capacity of the bucket is:

(1) 330 cm3

(2) 4850 cm3

(3) 48510 cm3

(4) 48500 cm3

  1. Water is flowing at the rate of 7 metres per second through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 2 cm, into a cylindrical tank the radius of whose base is 40 cm. The increase in the water level in 1/2 hour is:

(1) 31500 cm

(2) 236.25 cm

(3) 787.5 cm

(4) 587.5 cm

  1. It is proposed to add to a square lawn measuring 58 cm on a side with two circular ends. The centre of each circle being the point of intersection of the diagonals of the square. The area of complete lawn is:

(1) 4325.14 cm2

(2) 432.514 cm2

(3) 3844.57 cm2

(4) 43251.4 cm2

  1. The radius of the circle whose area is the sum of the area of two triangles whose sides are 35, 53, 66 and 33, 56, 65 measured in centimetres, will be:

(1) 4.62 cm

(2) 9.24 cm

(3) 14 √3cm

(4) 11.24 cm

  1. The inner circumference of a circular track is 220 metre. The track is 7 metre wide every where. The cost of putting up a fence along the outer circle at the rate of ₹2 per metre is :

(1) 132₹

(2) 264₹

(3) 528₹

(4) 654₹

  1. The radius of the incircle of a triangle is 4 cm and the segments into which one side is divided by the point of contact are 6 cm and 8 cm. The other two sides of th etriangles are :

(1) 11 cm and 13 cm

(2) 15 cm and 17 cm

(3) 13 cm and 15 cm

(4) 17 cm and 19 cm

87. If A is the area of a right triangle and b is one of the sides containing the right angle, then the length of the altitude on the hypotenuse is :

(1) Ab / √b4 + 4A2

(2) 2Ab / √b4 + 4A2

(3) Ab / √b4 + 2A2

(4) Ab / √b4 + A2

  1. If the coordinates of two points A and B are (3, 4) and (5,-2) respectively. Find the coordinates of any point P, if PA=PB and area of AB=10 square units.

(1) (-7,2)or(-1,0)

(2) (7,-2) or (-1,0)

(3) (-7,-2) or (-1.0)

(4) None of these

  1. If the coordinate of the mid-points of the sides of a triangle are (1, 1), (2, -3) and (3, 4) its controid is:

(1) (0,0)

(2) (2, 3/3)

(3) (3,1)

(4) (1, 2/3)

  1. The points (a, a) (-a, -a) and (-√3a,√3a) are the vertices of a triangle. The area of triangle is:

(1) 2√3a2

(2) √3a2

(3) √3/2 a2

(4) 2√3a

  1. At the food of a mountain the elevation of its summit is 45°, after ascending 1000 meter towards the mountain up a slope of 30° inclination, the elevation is found to be 60°. The height of the mountain is:(√3=1.732)

(1) 2633 meter

(2) 2366 meter

(3) 1366 meter

(4) 1636 meter

  1. The angle of elevation of a jet plane from a point A onthe ground is 60°. After a flight of 30 seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the jet plane is flying at a constant height of 3600√3 m, the speed of jet plane is:

(1) 864 km/hr

(2) 108 km/hr

(3) 720 km/hr

(4) 664 km/hr

  1. If tanθ+ 1/tanθ=2 then the value of tan2 θ + 1/tan2θ is:

(1) 4

(2) 16

(3) 2

(4) 8

94. If there are (2n+1) terms in A.P., then the ratio of the sum of odd terms and the sum of even terms is:

(1) (n-1) : n

(2) (n+1) : n

(3) n : (n+1)

(4) None of these

  1. One-fourth of a herd of camels was seen in the forest. Twice the suare root of the herd had gone to mountains and the remaining 15 camels were seen on the bank of a river. The total humber of cames is:

(1) 16

(2) 36

(3) 64

(4) 24

  1. A factory keeps increasing output of its goods by the same percentage every year. Find the percentage if it is known that the output is doubled in the last two years:

(1) (-√2 + 1)x100%

(2) (√2 + 1)x100%

(3) (√2 – 1)x100%

(4) None of these

  1. 8 men and 12 boys can complete a work in 10 days while 6 men and 8 boys can complete it in 14 days. The time taken by one man alone to complete the work is:

(1) 70 days

(2) 140 days

(3) 280 days

(4) 210 days

  1. After covering a distance of 30 km with a uniform speed there is some defect in a train engine and therefore its speed gets reduced to 4/5 of its original speed. Consequently, the train reaches its destination late by 45 minutes. If, the defect in engine would have occurred after covering 18 kilometres more distance, the train would have reached 9 minutes earlier. The original speed of the train is:

(1) 120 km/hr

(2) 90 km/hr

(3) 30 km/hr

(4) 20 km/hr

  1. If x4+x3+8x2+ax+b is divisible by x2+1 , then the values of a and b are:

(1) a=-1,b=7

(2) a=1,b=-7

(3) a=1. b=7

(4) a=-1,b=-7

  1. If α, ẞ are the zeros of the polynomial f(x)=2x2+5x+k satisfying the relation α2+ẞ2+αẞ= 21/4 then the value of k is:

(1) 2

(2) -2

(3) 1

(4) 4

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